[OPE-L:4957] Andrew's interpretation of Marx's prices of production

From: Fred B. Moseley (fmoseley@mtholyoke.edu)
Date: Mon Feb 19 2001 - 01:06:58 EST

Andrew, I would be happy to discuss my interpretation of Marx's prices of
production and your criticisms of it (more forthcoming in a subsequent
post).  But I first want to emphasize where I think we are in the
discussion of your interpretation and the textual evidence.  

1.  It seems to me that there is clear and explicit textual evidence that
Marx's prices of production change only if there is a change in the
productivity of labor somewhere in the economy.  Jerry expressed agreement
with this conclusion.  Rakesh seems to also.  No one has dissented.  You
have not provided an alternative interpretation of the key passages I have

2.  According to your interpretation, on the other hand, prices of
production change even though there is no change in the productivity of
labor anywhere in the economy (as a result of input prices not being equal
to output prices).  

3. Appealing to market prices as another possible source of changes in
prices of production (at Eduardo's suggestion) does not help your case,
because you explicitly exclude market prices from your analysis.  Your
prices of production change instead because you assume that input prices
are not equal to output prices.  Marx never said anything like this.  

4.  Therefore, I think it has to be concluded that your interpretation of
Marx's prices of production is contradicted by the textual evidence
presented thus far.  If you have further textual evidence related to this
question, then please present it.  But that would seem to be the
conclusions thus far.

Do you (or others) disagree with this conclusion?  If so, please explain


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