[OPE-L:4958] Re: Re: RE: Re: RE: causes of changes in prices of production

From: Fred B. Moseley (fmoseley@mtholyoke.edu)
Date: Mon Feb 19 2001 - 01:11:06 EST

On Sat, 17 Feb 2001, Gerald_A_Levy wrote:

> Re Andrew's [OPE-L:4937]:
> >  Fred writes that "I would be willing to concede that
> > my criticism of your interpretation of Marx's prices of
> > production is invalid  if there were passages in Marx's
> > manuscripts (the more the better) in which he explicitly > stated  that
> prices of production may change due to
> > input prices not being  equal to output prices, as in your >
> interpretation."
> > This is too narrow a basis for discussion.  Why must
> > there be
> > explicit statements?  Why isn't it good enough that this
> > be the
> > implication of Marx's theory?
> When one interpretation puts forward clear empirical evidence in the form of
> unambiguous and un-refuted quotations,  then a discussion about implications
> is secondary and instead deals with another question: whether Marx's theory
> is self-contradictory.

I agree with Jerry here.  On the basis of the textual evidence presented
thus far, I think it has to be concluded that Marx's prices of production
change only if there is a change of productivity somewhere in the economy.  

The question then becomes: what are the implications of this assumption,
and are these implications logically consistent?

But the implications of this assumption are not a criterion on the basis
of which one decides whether or not Marx made this assumption.  That
question has already been answered by the textual evidence:  Marx did
indeed make this assumption.


This archive was generated by hypermail 2b30 : Thu Mar 01 2001 - 14:01:39 EST