[OPE-L:4947] Re: Re: prices of production

From: Rakesh Narpat Bhandari (rakeshb@Stanford.EDU)
Date: Sat Feb 17 2001 - 14:42:36 EST

>Jerry writes in 4942
>Since you go on in your post to refer to the "real world", are you aware
>that since disequilibrium is the norm within any capitalist economy (and
>aggregate supply and aggregate demand only equal each other rarely and
>fleetingly), then by your definition prices of production rarely, if ever,
>happen?  This is a legitimate position, of course, but I wonder if you are
>aware of the implication.
>In solidarity, Jerry

I think this is a strength of my interpretation. But more generally 
how are we to understand the relation between market prices and 
prices of production? I would reject Fred's quasi-Hegelian 
emananistic or essentialistic logic by which the price of production 
is the inner necessity and market price merely an outer contigency. 
This epistemo-logic is more than a copy theory of knowledge; it is an 
identity logic in that the claim here is that the more capitalism 
develops and eliminates residues of earlier economic 
conditions--i.e., the more capital and labor mobility are 
achieved--the more does the approximation (market prices) approach 
the pure form (prices of production). I would recommend some Kantian 
skepticism here so that we remain aware of the one-sidedness in any 
relation between the concept and the conceived.

Yours, Rakesh

This archive was generated by hypermail 2b30 : Thu Mar 01 2001 - 14:01:39 EST