[OPE-L:4657] Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Questions

From: Gil Skillman (gskillman@MAIL.WESLEYAN.EDU)
Date: Fri Dec 08 2000 - 22:20:00 EST

Rakesh, sorry, my last question in the previous post should have accepted
your caveat from a previous post for the sake of argument:

"So the value of labor power seems to 
me to be shorthand for the value of the wage goods what has been 
needed to reproduce workers (of course as long as we are assuming 
P<>V; if the price of wage goods is greater than their value, then 
the value of labor power is the price of those goods, not their 
value). Strictly speaking, I do not think labor power has value but 
for all practical purposes we can determine whether labor power has 
been sold at or below value. But I am open to correction of 

To re-ask the question, then, given your interpretation above of the "value
of labor power", can we infer from Marx's argument in Chapter 6 that
capitalists must purchase *labor power*--simply the capacity to work--in
order to appropriate surplus value?  From your previous post once removed,
I got the impression that in your reading, Marx sidesteps this question by
simply assuming it away.  Is this impression accurate?


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