[OPE-L:4588] reply to Fred (1)

From: Rakesh Narpat Bhandari (rakeshb@Stanford.EDU)
Date: Fri Dec 01 2000 - 03:43:03 EST

re Fred's 4587

>Hi Rakesh,
>Thanks for your last two posts.  There are several points I would like to
>respond to, but this post will focus again on the key paragraph on
>pp. 264-65 of Volume 3 that you continue to emphasize as  "unequivocal"
>textual evidence to support your interpretation.

Dear Fred,
This however is not my only evidence! I understand that we have two 
interpretations of these pages, so I tried to support my 
interpretation on other grounds.  And indeed nowhere do you deny that 
Marx has postulated the experimental set up for his 3 volume 
gedankenexperiment (these can be cheap because they don't always 
require equipment, but they require a lot of imagination and 
therefore their explanatory power is perilously dependent on the 
imagination on the theorist's imagination!)  Marx has set up the 
requirement that all commodities exchange at [prices determined by 
(or proportional to)] their full value in a self enclosed capitalist 
system in which the value of money is constant, there is no foreign 
trade, credit is excluded, only two classes confront one another.

   Marx carries the requirement of exchange of all commodities at full 
value over to volume 3; it is then relaxed in a rigorous logical 
demonstration for the outputs (only commodities produced by capitals 
of average organic compositions are shown to exchange at prices 
determined by or proportional to values); once the category price of 
production is derived, it is then noted that determination of cost 
price would have to be modified since it has been *required* that the 
inputs be purchased not in terms of prices of production but rather 
at prices determined by or proportional to their full values. I 
provided you two quotes from vol 1 where Marx laid out this rule of 
his game or thought experiment.

This does not mean that cost price is no longer a given 
presupposition in the production of a commodity. It means that the 
determinate cost price which is a given presupposition in his 
transformation tableaux has been determined in terms of the 
stipulation that all commodities (labor power included) exchange at 
their full value. Marx notes then that just as the outputs 
(tendentially) exchange in terms of prices of production rather than 
values, the cost price of a commodity cannot be equated--as he had 
hitherto *required* in his gedanken experiment--with the value of the 
consumed commodities.

So I am not just relying on this passage but the logic of Marx's 
gedanken experiment.

I'll leave it here for now.

Yours, Rakesh

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