[OPE-L:4443] Re: Re: What is Volume 1 about?

From: Andrew_Kliman (Andrew_Kliman@email.msn.com)
Date: Sat Nov 04 2000 - 18:32:54 EST

In reply to OPE-L 4430,

Fred wrote

: So I guess the "labor-value" interpretation of Volume 1 must have been
: somehow "in the air" in the 1950s and starts to show up in the
: with Dickenson and Seton.

What was in the air was Leontief, and Samuelson-Dorfman-Solow-Chenery.
"Marx" was undoubtedly read through them, to "modernize" him.

On the other matter.  It is clear that folks before Abrahan-Frois and
Berrebi claimed that values are vertically integrated labor coefficients.
What I'm not sure about is who was first to claim that

(a) values in *Marx's own* work are exclusively vertically integrated
labor coefficients (that have no expression as monetary values that
differ from monetary prices)


(b) the "transformation problem" concerns the relationship between
monetary and labor-time variables -- i.e., units of measurement rather
than (or in addition to) discrepancies between aggregate magnitudes.

I think A-F and B may have been the first to assert (b).  But it is many
years since I read them, and I'm no longer certain that they do assert
it.  Others have.

Let me also ask folks a question.  Do you think these misinterpretations
have been innocent -- misreadings of what the texts say?  Or do you think
there have been ulterior motives at work -- attempts to "modernize" Marx,
to turn him into an economist, a precursor of Walras or "Sraffa" (read

Andrew Kliman

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