[OPE-L:4327] Re: SV, labour and machines

From: Andrew Brown (Andrew@lubs.leeds.ac.uk)
Date: Fri Oct 27 2000 - 11:00:35 EDT


Many thanks for the very interesting long post. A lot to chew on but 
the key seems to be your view that the important distinction 
between machines and labour does not entail that SV is only 
produced by labour. The 'tortuous' argument of Marx, denying that 
machines produce SV, that you refer to is difficult (though not 
tortuous) only because Marx's prior notion of value and labour is 
entailed, imo. Anyway Marx's argument seems to me to amount to 
the following:

IF a machine were, in general, to contribute more value in 
production than it initially costs THEN the laws of free exchange - 
ie. supply and demand - entail that its price will go up until equal to 
the sum of (present) value contributed. This is simply the 'law of 
one price': the machine and its contribution to production are 
merely different forms of the same commodity (the potential form 
and the realised form), rather than being two distinct commodities, 
hence their price (present value) is the same. What do you think?

Best wishes,

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