[OPE-L:4114] use value and value

From: ECUSERS (ECBURKE@scifac.indstate.edu)
Date: Mon Oct 16 2000 - 13:32:26 EDT

In terms of the Levy-Perelman discussion, if the job done by the 
two commodities is exactly the same (e.g., simply counting things up 
or doing the exact same calculation when comparing a slide rule to a 
calculator), then it is clearly the unit value (value per unit of use 
value) that has changed.  My guess is though, that that there are a 
lot more examples where the character of the use value changes along 
with changes in the value of the commodity that provides that use 
value.  For example, a calculator can do things that you just can't 
do with a slide rule.  But then there are other examples where a 
commodity crowds out other competing commodities because it has a 
lower value, even if the use value(s) it produces is/are in some ways 
inferior to the one(s) it replaces.

In general I would think that the use value(s) yielded by a commodity 
are usually inseparable from the material shape of the commodity 
itself, so that changes in value and use value normally occur 
together.  This is perhaps most clear in the case of services but I 
would need to think about this more.  How would the connection 
between value and use value differ if at all for services compared to 
material goods?  Cheers, Paul Burkett

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