[OPE-L:4047] Re: Re: RE: Re: Re: Re: m in Marx's theory

From: clyder (wpc@dcs.gla.ac.uk)
Date: Wed Oct 11 2000 - 08:20:12 EDT

Why would the distribution of the log of the organic compositions be

Does not matter if you take industries or firms.

occ = c/v 

in log form = log c - log v

if c and v are random variables, log occ is then in the form
of a sum of random variables, and thus will have a Gaussian distribution

Paul Cockshott
----- Original Message ----- 
From: Andrew_Kliman <Andrew_Kliman@email.msn.com>
To: <ope-l@galaxy.csuchico.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, October 11, 2000 1:35 PM
Subject: [OPE-L:4045] Re: RE: Re: Re: Re: m in Marx's theory

> In OPE-L 4044, Julian asked:
> "Is there any reason to think that the distribution of industry OCC's (or
> of firm ones, for that matter) would be Gaussian?"
> My first thought was to agree that the answer is no.  Then I remembereed
> to ask myself what an industry is.  Realizing that industries can be
> aggregated any damned way one wants, it thus occurred to me that the
> distribution of OCCs can probably be anything one wants as well.
> Andrew Kliman

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