[OPE-L:3897] Re: Re: Fred/Ajit discussion

From: ECUSERS (ECBURKE@scifac.indstate.edu)
Date: Thu Sep 28 2000 - 19:03:25 EDT

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> Paul B.
> Does this mean that you agree with Engels that simple commodity production
> is both logically and historically prior to generalized commodity
> production? Does it also mean that, for you, capitalism can exist without
> wage labor?
> Paul Z.

Well, on the first question, if by simple commodity production is
meant the production of commodities in enterprises not using wage
labor, it is obviously historically prior. If you mean SCP as a
dominant form of production, I don't think that has ever happened. I
am not sure what logically prior means though in this context. On
the second question, my answer is no. But I don't see how the
statement would follow from mine. Obviously capital in the sense of
M-M' existed prior to capitalism (e.g., in moneylending).

Not sure what you're getting at, but I am interested in finding out.
Comradely, Paul Burkett.

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