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bhandari@Princeton.EDU (Rakesh Bhandari) said, on 05/07/00 at 11:58 PM:
>>Rakesh, if you agree that Chapter One is about the capitalist mode of
>>production, then you have no basis for claiming commodities having the
>>"property of value before capitalism". That is, *value* is a property
>>within the capitalist mode of production only, just as is *surplus value*.
>Hi Paul Z, Marx clearly argues that before capitalism commodities were
>produced with their value character already in mind (i.e., they were
>produced in order to be exchanged)...
"Value" does not equal "produced in order to be exchange", in my reading.
Rather, "value" production occurs when there is generalized commodity
production (with of course buying and selling of labor power).
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