[OPE-L:2588] Re: Re: Re: class demarcation

From: Ernesto Screpanti (screpanti@unisi.it)
Date: Wed Mar 22 2000 - 07:16:25 EST

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Paul wrote in [2559]

>If one posing the question this way, the Soviet Union would not be a class
>society because workers 1) did "own" the means of production (at least
>seemingly, at least "de jure"), but 2) surely did not "control" the means
>of production. Paul

In my opinion the SU was a capitalist society, precisely because: 1) the
workers were controlled and exploited by virtue of the obligation to
obedience they undertook by accepting the employment relation, 2) the goal
of production was capitalist accumulation.

In solidarity


>Paul Zarembka, supporting RESEARCH IN POLITICAL ECONOMY
>******************** http://ourworld.compuserve.com/homepages/PZarembka
>Gerald Levy <glevy@PRATT.EDU> said, on 03/18/00 at 11:52 AM:
>>I don't think that the issue is whether class is defined in terms of
>>ownership *or* control (since no one has suggested that class can be
>>defined _only_ in terms of ownership of the means of production) but
>>whether it is to be defined in terms of ownership *and* control (or not).
Ernesto Screpanti
Dipartimento di Economia Politica
Piazza S. Francesco 1
53100 Siena
tel: 0577 232784
fax: 0577 232661

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