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From: "Michael Williams" <email@example.com>
Subject: RE: [OPE-L:2308] value form and m-c-m'
Date: Fri, 4 Feb 2000 19:35:51 -0000
----- Original Message -----
From: clyder <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Sent: Monday, January 31, 2000 10:20 AM
Subject: [OPE-L:2308] Re: Re: Re: value form and m-c-m'
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: Gil Skillman <email@example.com>
> To: <firstname.lastname@example.org>
> Sent: Sunday, January 30, 2000 11:02 PM
> Subject: [OPE-L:2304] Re: Re: value form and m-c-m'
> > Here's one way of answering: the validity of the "fundamental Marxian
> > theorem", which asserts the logical equivalence of positive rate of
> > (in real or monetary units) and positive rate of exploitation (in labor
> > units) does not depend one way or another on the proposition that labor
> > "regulates" prices. Viewed from this angle, this significance of
> > labor for the existence of profit is logically independent of the latter
> > hypothesis. Gil
> How do you define rate of exploitation independently of money profits
> in that case?
You can *define* it in terms of the ratio of unpaid to paid labour, since if
labour is the only source valorisation, this must typically be > 0. You can
no doubt approximately *measure* it in terms of this ratio in some 'typical'
capitalist enterprise. But the only way it is in fact measured is as the
(difference between money value-added and money wages)/money value-added.
None of this is incompatible with the notion that unless capitals pump
sufficient labour out of the labour power they have bought, they will not be
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