[ show plain text ]
Why must one assume that the gold producers earn(ed) no absolute
rent? That is, if the marginal gold producer earns only the average rate
of profit, then his production produces no rent. Must this happen?
Why? Is this a natural thing or social determined concept or something
necessary to preserve the idea of a computable equilibrium rate of
What of other producers in sectors that earn rent?
This archive was generated by hypermail 2b29 : Mon Jan 31 2000 - 07:00:06 EST